Rsv Shareholder's Action Group

JakNife:

It then follows that the person who you bought the shares from has to make a compensatory payment to you equal to the dividend, since you are entitled to the dividend and they have sold the dividend to you. But the cash that you physically receive is paid to you by the vendor of the shares and NOT by the company.

OK - fair enough, as a process, but I still don't understand the crux of the issue. As you indicate above, I am the owner of the shares, and, as such, am entitled to the dividend, as this has been sold to me. It then follows that I am also entitled to the voting rights, as they have also sold the voting rights to me. Therefore, in turn, it also follows that the seller cannot exercise the vote for shares that they have sold - that right has transferred to me at the time of the trade, using the same logic.

Thanks for the response, but I am still confused!
MM