I am not a holder of RSV, though I have followed what has transpired as an interested outsider.
I have posted this question before, but I am guessing that it was missed in the mass of other postings: If a buyer does not become a share member until the settlement of the trade, how come they are entitled to any dividends as soon as the trade is made? IE: if I purchase shares on a T+10 the day before they go ex-div, I am still entitled to the dividend even though the settlement will not be made until 10 days hence, and therefore I do not appear on the Shareholders Register.
I don't understand how I can have a beneficial ownership of the shares, and yet I cannot use the voting rights. Am I missing something?