Goodnight....however, the qu is what determines finally and once and for ever whether or not they have my shares?? If the contract between me and them is binding irrespective of whether or not they actually purchased on my behalf or irrespective of whether or not this purchase was completed, then I have no leg to stand on. However, if (my)ownership was only completed by the completion of all the above, then maybe I have a case? I have asked for proof of this "completion", but if I am missing a point then please speak up!!!
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